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Football Question - Indirect Free-kicks

Mix Man (Elite) posted this on Tuesday, 8th March 2005, 11:40

If a player takes an indirect free-kick, shoots towards goal and the goalkeeper palms the ball into his own net, the goal stands. No argument there.

However, who should the goal be awarded to? The player who shot or the goalkeeper (as an own goal)? Is there anywhere in the FA rules that clarifies this?

Cheers.

RE: Football Question - Indirect Free-kicks

globalvillageidiot (Competent) posted this on Tuesday, 8th March 2005, 11:51

This is covered by Laws 10 and 13 of F.I.F.A.`s Rules.

A goal is scored when the whole of the ball passes over the goal line, between the goalposts and under the crossbar, provided that no infringement of the Laws of the Game has been committed previously by the team scoring the goal.

The Indirect Free Kick - Ball Enters the Goal

A goal can be scored only if the ball subsequently touches another player before it enters the goal.

If an indirect free kick is kicked directly into the opponents' goal, a goal kick is awarded.

If an indirect free kick is kicked directly into the team's own goal, a corner kick is awarded to the opposing team.


So I suppose it`s up to the ref to decide?

This item was edited on Tuesday, 8th March 2005, 11:53

RE: Football Question - Indirect Free-kicks

Mix Man (Elite) posted this on Tuesday, 8th March 2005, 11:55

Quote:
So I suppose it`s up to the ref to decide?


Globalvillageidiot,

Cheers for the response but I was already aware of the above. it`s purely the matter of who gets credited with the goal that I was querying. Surely there must be a "hard and fast" rule and it`s not up to the referee to decide in each case? :/

RE: Football Question - Indirect Free-kicks

sj (Elite) posted this on Tuesday, 8th March 2005, 11:59

That doesn`t really cover it, does it?
Normally if the ball was deemed to be going in anyway then it`s given the the player who shot. i.e without the other player`s intervention it would have been a goal. However, in this instance, given that the goalkeeper HAD to touch it for the goal to stand I would say it should be `credited` to the goalkeeper. Because if he hadn`t touched it, the goal would not have stood. Maybe. ;)

Ste



We will pay the price but we will not count the cost..

RE: Football Question - Indirect Free-kicks

Mix Man (Elite) posted this on Tuesday, 8th March 2005, 12:07

Quote:
Because if he hadn`t touched it, the goal would not have stood.


Exactly where I`m coming from. If the goalkeeper had not touched the ball, the goal would not have been given. Therefore, the goalkeeper being the first and last player to touch the ball in open play after the indirect free kick was taken makes him the scorer.

There must be something somewhere in the laws of the game that clarify this, surely!!!

RE: Football Question - Indirect Free-kicks

admars (Elite) posted this on Tuesday, 8th March 2005, 12:17

Wouldn`t "The board" decide, i.e. if a goal is scored in a regular Saturday afternoon match, say Striker hits it, it takes a defelction, goes in. Ref may give goal to Striker.

On the TV it may say Defender. Then in the papers the follwoing day they`ll moan about how the useless "board" gave the wrong decision!

IMHO it should count as the goalkeeper.

Al

www.admars.co.uk

RE: Football Question - Indirect Free-kicks

Mix Man (Elite) posted this on Tuesday, 8th March 2005, 12:36

Quote:
Wouldn`t "The board" decide


For Premiership matches maybe, but the Ryman Premier League doesn`t have a "dubious goals" panel!

This actually happened on Saturday in the Chelmsford v Braintree game. The Chelmsford keeper took an indirect free-kick in his own half in the 93rd minute of the match. The Braintree keeper palmed it into his own net and the game ended 1-1.

Anyone know a referee who can clarify?

RE: Football Question - Indirect Free-kicks

Magic_ians (Elite) posted this on Tuesday, 8th March 2005, 13:50

Another question!

If a player stands off the pitch to the side of the other teams goal and then runs onto the pitch to collect a pass from his own team is he then offside even though he was off the pitch at the time the ball was played? :/



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Everyones Connected R U?

RE: Football Question - Indirect Free-kicks

Mix Man (Elite) posted this on Tuesday, 8th March 2005, 14:07

That one`s easy! The player coming back onto the pitch is booked for returning to the pitch without the referee`s permission and the opposition get a free-kick at the place where the player ran back onto the pitch. Referees are not allowed to let a player back onto the pitch at such a time.

This item was edited on Tuesday, 8th March 2005, 14:09

RE: Football Question - Indirect Free-kicks

BigmanInc (Elite) posted this on Tuesday, 8th March 2005, 14:08

Spoken to a mate who is a ref, and he says the goal would stand, and should be credited to the person who kicked it as long as the deflection did not put in a goal that would have otherwise gone wide, the fact that the goalkeeper touched it is irrelevent except to make the goal valid as an indirect free kick.

As for the second question, he would not be offside - i am sure this has happened before no?




Heres to you Tony

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